LABOUR WELFARE
AND INDUSTRIAL RELATIONS, LABOUR AND
SOCIAL WELFARE, HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
1. Which of the following organisations is
generally a combination offunctional and project patterns of departmentation ?
(A) Line and staff
organisation
(B) Matrix organisation
(C) Functional organisation
(D) All the above
2. A guideline that channels decision– making is called a :
(A) Strategy (B)
Policy (C) Budget (D) Programme
3. Match the following :
Approach to Management
Characteristics
(a) Management science approach (i) Focus on leadership and
motivation
(b) Situational
approach (ii)
Managerial practices depend on circumstances
(c)
Interpersonal behaviour approach (iii) Use of mathematical symbol
and relationship
(d) System approach
(iv) Recognising importance of inter-relatedness of management functions
and sub – systems.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(A) (i)
(ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii)
(i) (iv)
(C) (iii) (ii)
(i) (iv)
(D) (iii) (ii)
(iv) (i)
4. Semantic barriers in communication occur due to :
(A) Personality problems
(B) Language problems
(C) Attitude problems
(D) All the Above
5. Who among the following undertook the famous Hawthorne experiments ?
(A) Elton Mayo and Blake
(B) Elton Mayo and Roethlisberger
(C) Elton Mayo, Roethlisberger, Blake
(D) Elton Mayo, Roethlisberger, Blake and Juran
6. Which of the following is true in case of
methods of Job analysis information ?
(A) The interview
(B) Questionnaire
(C) Observation and Participant Diary
(D) All the above
7. Which of the following is not a type of
test pertaining to selection procedure ?
(A) Aptitude Test
(B) Achievement Test
(C) Situational Test
(D) Statistical Test
8. Arrange the following in a proper sequence to show selection procedure :
(a) Medical Test
(b) Screening of applications
(c) Interview
(d) Application of Psychological Test
(e) Written Test
(f) Checking of references
(g) Issuance of Appointment letter
(A) b, e, d, c, f, a, g
(B) e, d, b, c, a, g, f
(C) d, b, e, c, a, g, f
(D) f, a, g, b, c, d, e
9. Introducing the new employee to the job, location,
surroundings is called
(A) Placement
(B) Job design
(C) Recruitment
(D) Induction
10. Fish-bone Analysis is used in which of
the following :
(A) Collective bargaining
(B) Quality circles
(C) Quality of work life
(D) Training and Development
11. On–the–job training does not include :
(A) Coaching
(B) Job rotation
(C) Under study
(D) The case study
12. MBO was popularised as an approach to
planning by :
(A) P.F. Drucker
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) F. W. Taylor
(D) None of the above
13. The doctrine of Quality Circle got
popularity in which of the following countries :
(A) U.S.A
(B) India
(C) Japan
(D) U.K
14. Under the equity theory of motivation,
equity occurs when :
(A) Person's
outcomes Other's outcomes < Person's inputs Other's inputs
(B) Person's outcomes Other's outcomes >Person's
inputs Other's inputs
(C) Person's outcomes Other's outcomes = Person's inputs
Other's inputs
(D) Person's outcomes Person's inputs = Others outcomes
Other's inputs
15. In Black and Mouton’s “Managerial Grid”,
the ‘task style’ represents :
(A) High concern for people and low concern for
production.
(B) High concern for people and high concern for
production.
(C) Low concern for people and low concern for
production.
(D) High concern for production and low concern for
people.
16. Group norms are strongly enforced by
groups if they
(A) aid in group survival
(B) simplify expected behaviour of members
(C) express central values of the group
(D) All the above
17. Which of the following is correct about
Organisational Development ?
(A) It is a planned change
(B) It aims at problem solving
(C) It is focused primarily on human and social
relationships
(D) All the above
18. Which of the following contributes in
promoting healthy industrial relations in an organization ?
(A) Compulsory Arbitration
(B) Adjudication
(C) Collective Bargaining
(D) Voluntary Arbitration
19. In which of the following an Individual
Dispute can not take the form of Industrial Dispute without the help of the
Trade Union ?
(A) Termination
(B) Dismissal / Discharge
(C) Retrenchment
(D) Promotion
20. The Code of Discipline makes provisions
for which of the following :
(A) Unfair Labour practices
(B) Grievance redressal
(C) Recognition of Trade Union
(D) All the above
21. Which one of the following methods is
regarded as the most ideal for settlement of Industrial Dispute ?
(A) Adjudication
(B) Mediation / Conciliation
(C) Collective Bargaining
(D) Voluntary Arbitration
22. Which of the following is not a Trade
Union method as described by Webbs ?
(A) Mutual Insurance
(B) Strike
(C) Collective Bargaining
(D) Legal enactment
23. Which of the following directly aims to
control inter and intra–union rivalry in India ?
(A) The Industrial Dispute Act, 1947
(B) Code of Discipline in Industry
(C) Inter-Union Code of Conduct
(D) Trade Unions Act, 1926
24. Arrange the following in a proper
sequence according to the year in which they came into existence :
a. Indian Labour Conference
b. Defence of India Rules
c. Industrial Disputes Act
d. Scheme of Labour Management Co-operation (Joint
Management Councils)
e. First National Commission on Labour
f. Workers’ participation in management in Industries
g. Second National Commission on Labour
(A) a, c, d, e, f, g, b
(B) b, a, c, d, e, f, g
(C) c, d, e, f, g, a, b
(D) d, e, f, g, a, b, c
25. First time the May Day was celebrated in
India in :
(A) 1926
(B) 1927
(C) 1935
(D) 1947
26. The provisions regarding equal pay for
equal work to men and women are provided under which of the following :
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Preamble
(D) In all the above
27.
Assertion (A) :
Reason (R) :
Strikes in Public
Strike is not the right of workers in public
Utility Services are prohibited utility as compulsory
in breach of contract within 14 adjudication has been
provided
days of giving such notice for under Sec.
22 of the
Industrial
Dispute Act, 1947.
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(B) Both (A) & (R) are correct.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
28. The name of which of the following
legislation has been recently changed :
(A) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
(B) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
(C) Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
(D) Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
29. The provisions of constituting a
political fund is given under which of the following legislations ?
(A) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(B) Trade Unions Act, 1926
(C) Employees Provident Funds Act, 1952
(D) Industrial Employment (Standing Order’s) Act, 1946
30. Which of the following is correct with
regard to termination of an award ?
(A) After completing the tenure.
(B) After giving a notice by any one of the parties.
(C) After lapse of two months from the date a notice is
given by any of the parties.
(D) None of the above.
31. Which of the following bodies is provided
under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 ?
(A) Standing Labour Committee
(B) Shop Level Council
(C) Advisory Board
(D) Joint Management Council
32. Who among the following has been
authorized to certify standing orders. under Industrial Employment (standing
order’s) Act, 1946 ?
(A) Labour Inspector
(B) Labour Commissioner
(C) Chief Inspector of Factories
(D) Certifying officers
33. The wage period as provided under the
Payment of Wages Act, 1936 should not be more than
(A) 30 days
(B) 31 days
(C) 1 month
(D) None of the above
34. Appointment of welfare officer is a
statutory requirement according to
(A) Factories Act, 1948
(B) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(C) Trade Union Act, 1926
(D) Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
35. Trusteeship theory of labour welfare was
propounded by
(A) G. L. Nanda
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) None of the above
36. One first aid box must be provided for
every
(A) 150 workers
(B) 200 workers
(C) 250 workers
(D) 300 workers
37. The author of the book ‘Principles of
Labour Welfare’ is :
(A) K. N. Vaid
(B) M. V. Murthy
(C) S. C. Pant
(D) T. N. Bhagoliwal
38. Who among the following is not included
in the labour force ?
(A) Workers / employees
(B) Self-employed people
(C) Domestic servants
(D) House-wives
39. Which of the following types of
unemployment is also known as Disguised Unemployment ?
(A) Frictional unemployment
(B) Technological unemployment
(C) Seasonal unemployment
(D) Under employment
40. Out of the following theories of wages
which one is also called as Iron Law of Wages ?
(A) Wage Fund Theory
(B) Subsistence Theory
(C) Marginal Productivity Theory
(D) Collective Bargaining Theory
41. Outsourcing, when it is done
internationally, affects which of the following in the country which out–
sources :
(A) Supply of labour
(B) Demand for labour
(C) Both supply and demand
(D) None of the above
42. The Chapter on “Annual Leave with Wages”
is provided under the
(A) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(B) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
(C) Factories Act, 1948
(D) Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948
43. ‘Consumer Price Index’ is taken into
account in connection with which of the following :
(A) Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
(B) Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
(C) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
(D) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
44. Which of the following Legislations took
into account the provision 81 A of the Defence of India Rules ?
(A) Trade Unions Act, 1926
(B) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(C) Industrial Employment, (standing order’s) Act, 1946
(D) All the above
45. Plenary labour conference was initial
name of which of the following organization ?
(A) ILO
(B) Standing labour committee
(C) Indian labour conference
(D) International labour conference
Read the following passage and answer questions from 46
to 50 –
One of the newer approaches to management theory is the
managerial roles approach, popularized by Prof. Henry Mintzberg of McGill
University. Essentially, his approach is to observe what managers actually do
and from such observations come to the conclusion as to what managerial
activities (or rules) are. Although many approaches have studied the actual
work of managers – from chief executives to line supervisors – Mintzberg has
given this approach a higher visibility.
After systematically studying the activities of five
chief executives in a variety of organizations, Mintzberg came to the
conclusion that executives do not perform the classical managerial functions –
planning, organizing, co-ordinating and controlling. Instead, they engage in a
variety of other activities. From his research and the research of others who
have studied what managers actually do, he came to certain conclusions.
Mintzberg’s approach has also been criticized. In the first place, the sample
of five executives used in his research is for too small to support so sweeping
a conclusion. In the second place, in analyzing the actual activities of
managers – from chief executives to supervisors – any researcher must realize
that all managers do some work that is not purely managerial; one would expect
even presidents of large companies to spend some of their time in public and
stock holder relations, in fund raising and perhaps in dealer relations,
marketing and so on. In the third place, many of the activities Mintzberg found
are, in fact, evidences of planning, organizing, staffing, leading and
controlling. For example, what is resource allocation but planning ? The
entrepreneurial role is certainly an element of planning. And the interpersonal
roles are mainly instances of leading. In addition, the informational roles can
be fitted into a number of functional areas.
46. The new approach to management theory is
:
(A) Managerial roles approach
(B) Workers’ participation approach
(C) Executive role approach
(D) ‘Internal Management’ theory
47. The classical managerial functions are
(A) Planning & controlling
(B) Supervising through officers, and decision making
(C) Conducting training activities
(D) All the above
48. Mintzberg’s approach is
(A) A fool proof approach without any demerits &
criticism.
(B) Faced with some criticism.
(C) Considered as innovative and without shortcomings.
(D) None of the above
49. The entrepreneurial role means
(A) Leading
(B) Element of planning
(C) Playing pivotal role in Industrial Relations
(D) All of the above
50. The Managerial Role approach relates to
(A) What workers’ actually do while participating in
management ?
(B) What managers actually do ?
(C) What the various authorities in the area of
Industrial Relations actually do ?
(D) None of the above
51. Match the following :
Name of the Book Author
(a) Management and Worker (i) Rensis Likert
(b) The Human Side of Enterprise (ii) Elton Mayo
(c) The New Patterns of Management (iii) Roethlisberger and Dickson
(d) The Human Problems of Industrial Civilization. (iv)
Douglas McGregor
Codes :
(a) (b) (c)
(d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
52. Which of the following is ‘not’ true in
case of ‘system’ theory of organization ?
(A) Organization is an energetic input-output system.
(B) The system is flagrantly open in its interaction with
the environment.
(C) There is no negative entropy in a system which
require importing of more energy from the environment than is expended.
(D) For homeostasis in a system, the feedback loop is
essential.
53. When a plan is aimed at achieving a
special goal and designed to deal with a unique
non-recurring situation, it is called
(A) Project (B) Single-Use Plan
(C) Standing Plan (D) Policy
54. Match the following :
Contributor Organisation Theory
(a) Chester I. Barnard (i) Functional Foremanship
(b) Max Weber (ii) Acceptance Theory of Authority
(c) F.W. Taylor (iii) Open System Theory
(d) Katz and Kahn (iv) Bureaucracy
Codes :
(a) (b) (c)
(d)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
55. Arrange the following steps in the
control process in the order in which they occur :
(a) Establishing standards
(b) Managing performance.
(c) Determining areas to control.
(d) Comparing performance against standards.
(e) Taking corrective action when necessary.
(f) Adjusting standards and measures when necessary.
(g) Recognizing good or positive performance.
(A) (a) (b) (c) (e) (d) (f) (g)
(B) (c) (a) (b) (d) (g) (e) (f)
(C) (a) (c) (d) (b) (e) (g) (f)
(D) (c) (d) (a) (b) (f) (g) (e)
56. Which of the following experiments is
associated with the welfare movement ?
(A) Hawthorne Experiment (B) New Lanark Experiment
(C) Ahmedabad Experiment (D) None of the above
57. Arrange the steps in Manpower Planning in
the order in which they occur.
(a) Identifying sources of manpower supply.
(b) Manpower forecasting.
(c) Determining manpower requirements.
(d) Manpower Inventory
(e) Selection
(f) Recruitment
(g) Placement
(A) (c) (b) (d) (a) (f) (e) (g)
(B) (a) (c) (b) (d) (e) (f) (g)
(C) (d) (a) (b) (c) (f) (e) (g)
(D) (c) (d) (a) (b) (f) (e) (g)
58. Which of the following is not a model of
selection ?
(A) Multiple Choice Model (B) Multiple Cut-off Model
(C) Multiple Hurdles Model (D) Predictor Criterion Model
59. The internal wage differentials and
relative worth of the job for the organization are
determined by
(A) Job Analysis (B) Job Design
(C) Job Enrichment (D) Job Evaluation
60. Which of the following is not an
incentive plan that relates wages with productivity ?
(A) Taylor’s differential piece-rate system (B) The
Beveridge Plan
(C) The Scanlon Plan (D) The Halsey Premium Plan
61. The following definition “development of
awareness and sensitivity to behavioural
patterns of oneself and others” refers to
which of the following methods of training ?
(A) In-Basket (B) Case study
(C) Management games (D) T-Group
62. In organising an Executive Development
Programme, how would you arrange the
following steps ?
I. Actual conduct of the programme. II. Evaluation of the
programme.
III. Inventory of Management Talent. IV. Analysis of
Developmental Needs
(A) I III II IV (B) IV III I II
(C) I IV III II (D) II I III IV
63. Assertion (A) : The team members get
along well with each other as a result of
sensitivity training.
Reason (R) : A major difficulty in relying
solely on sensitivity training is that it
neglects the important procedural aspects of
the functioning of teams
(A) (A) is true (R) is false.
(B) (A) and (R) both are false.
(C) (A) and (R) both are true.
(D) (A) and (R) are true, (R) is correct explanation of
(A).
64. Which of the following is the correct
sequence of Performance Appraisal Process ?
I. Setting standards for performance.
II. Measuring the performance.
III. Comparing the actual performance with the standard
set.
IV. Communicating the standards set to the employees.
(A) I II III IV (B) I II IV III
(C) I IV II III (D) II III IV I
65. Match the following Behavioural
Scientists with their areas of contribution :
Scientists Areas of Contribution
(i) Charles L. Hulin and Milton R. Blood (a)
Transactional Analysis
(ii) Blake and Mouton (b)
Organisational Development
(iii) Eric Berne (c)
Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS)
(iv) Beckhard R (d)
Managerial Grid
Codes :
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
(A) (c) (d) (a) (b)
(B) (c) (a) (b) (d)
(C) (a) (c) (b) (d)
(D) (d) (b) (a) (c)
66. In ERG theory of motivation, the words E,
R and G respectively stand for
(A) Existence, Resources and Growth
(B) Existence, Relatedness and Growth
(C) Effectiveness, Risk and Groups
(D) Efficiency, Responsiveness and Grid
67. Which of the following sequence of the
Group Development Process is correct ?
I. Performing II. Storming III. Adjourning
IV. Forming V. Norming
(A) IV V III II I (B) I III II V IV
(C) II IV III V I (D) IV II V I III
68. Assertion (A) : Punishment is the least
effective method for promoting both learning
and performance.
Reason (R) : By itself, punishment does not necessarily
provide a clear idea about
what are needed in order to do something
correctly.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is correct explanation
of (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(D) (A) is false (R) is true.
69. Where do the following activities fall in
Kurt Lewin’s model of change process ?
‘Reinforcing the newly learned behaviour,
finding ‘fits’ between organisational
components, and maintaining ‘fits’ between
organisational components’
(A) Unfreezing (B) Moving
(C) Refreezing (D) None of the above
70. Assertion (A) : There is a negative
relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism,
though the correlation is not very high.
Reason (R) : High employee turnover is a
serious concern for the management.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is not correct
explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(C) (A) is true (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true (A) is false.
71. The scope of industrial relations does
not include
(A) Employer and Employee relations
(B) Employer and Trade Union relations.
(C) Employer, Employee and Trade Union relations.
(D) Employer and Customer relations.
72. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(a) Strike (i) The action of employer is temporarily
closing down his undertaking.
(b) Lockout (ii)
Refusal of the employer to employ the workers because of coal, power and raw
material.
(c) Lay-off (iii) Temporary cessation of work by a
group of employees in order to express their
grievances.
(d) Closure (iv) Permanently closing down of the
establishment by the employer.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c)
(d)
(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
73. Which of the following is not an
adjudication machinery under the Industrial Disputes
Act ?
(A) Labour Court (B) Court of Enquiry
(C) Industrial Tribunal (D) National Tribunal
74. As a result of the New Economic Policy
which of the following has been badly affected ?
(A) Trade Unions (B) Collective Bargaining
(C) Strikes (D) All the above
75. Which of the following is not a
tripartite body ?
(A) Indian Labour Conference (B) Joint Management
Councils
(C) Standing Labour Committee (D) Wage Boards
76. Which of the following is not a part of
the structure of Trade Union in India ?
(A) Craft Union (B) Industrial Union
(C) Company Union (D) Federations
77. The basic function of trade union is
(A) To protect and promote the interest of the workers.
(B) Acquiring the control of industry by workers.
(C) Imbibing sincerity and discipline in workers.
(D) To provide cultural and recreational facilities.
78. Ravindra Verma was the Chairman of
(A) Royal Commission on Labour
(B) First National Commission on Labour
(C) Second National Commission on Labour
(D) Labour Investigation Committee
79. Which of the following aims to check
inter and intra union rivalry in India ?
(A) The Trade Union Act (B) The Code of Discipline in
Industry
(C) The Inter Union Code of Conduct. (D) All the above
80. Match the following :
(a) Madras Labour Union (i) 1890
(b) Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association (ii) 1909
(c) Bombay Mill Hands Association (iii) 1917
(d) Kamgar Hitwardhan Sabha (iv) 1920
Codes :
(a) (b) (c)
(d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
81. Which of the following is not a type of
labour legislation ?
(A) Protective (B) Regulative
(C) Social Security (D) Social Legislation
82. Which of the following statements
relating to I.L.O. is not true ?
(A) I.L.O. is a tripartite body.
(B) I.L.O. has a standing labour committee.
(C) I.L.O. believes not only in people at work but also
their development.
(D) I.L.O. recommendations are compulsorily binding in
nature.
83. The unemployment insurance benefit was
included in the ESI Act since
(A) 1975 (B) 1985 (C) 1995 (D) 2005
84. The period of work of an adult worker in
a factory including intervals cannot be more
than
(A) 8 1/2 hours
(B) 10 1/2 hours (C) 8 hours (D) 9 hours
85. The women employees are now entitled to
maternity leave according to Maternity
Benefit Act, 1961 for a period of
(A) 120 days (B) 100 days (C) 180 days (D) 150 days
86. Which of the following Union Security
Measures has been prescribed under the
Payment of Wages Act ?
(A) Closed shop system (B) Union shop system
(C) Check off (D) Picketing
87. Adjudication machineries under the
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 shall submit their
award in case of an individual workman within
a period of
(A) One year (B) Two years
(C) Three years (D) Three months
88. An employer insists to include certain
subjects in his draft standing orders for certification by the certifying
officer, which are neither covered by any item of the schedule nor by the model
standing orders
(A) He can do so (B) He cannot do so
(C) The Act is silent about it (D) None of the above
89. What is the minimum number of members
required for registration of a trade union ?
(A) Seven members (B) 100 members
(C) 100 or 10% but not less than seven (D) None of the
above
90. Minimum Wages Act, 1948 aims to
(A) maintain purchasing power of wages.
(B) encourage workers to produce more.
(C) check exploitation of labour by employer.
(D) pay workers according to their work.
91. The seven approaches to philosophy or
theory of labour welfare were first identified by
(A) K.N. Vaid (B) M.V. Moorthy
(C) A.M. Sharma (D) I.D. Punekar
92. Who considered ‘want’, ‘ignorance’,
‘squalor’, ‘idleness’ and ‘disease’ as five giants on
the road to social security ?
(A) V.V. Giri (B) M.V. Moorthy
(C) Lord Beveridge (D) Pal Chu
93. The programmes generally providing
benefits for meeting the minimum needs of
persons of small means are called
(A) Social Insurance (B) Social Assistance
(C) Mutual Aid (D) None of the above
94. Which of the following cannot be regarded
as extra mural labour welfare facility ?
(A) Canteen (B) Housing
(C) Hospital (D) Playground
95. Who among the following is not regarded
as welfare agency for factory workers ?
(A) Employer (B) Trade Unions
(C) N.G.Os (D) State and Central Government
96. Match the following :
Contributors Wage Theories
(a) David Ricardo (i)
Marginal Productivity Theory
(b) James Stuart Mill ( ii) Residual Claimant Theory
(c) F.W. Walker (iii) Wage Fund Theory
(d) J.B. Clark (iv) Subsistence Theory
Codes :
(a) (b) (c)
(d)
(A) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
97. The machinery of wage board in India is
primarily used in connection with
(A) Settlement of Industrial Disputes.
(B) State Regulation of Wages.
(C) Determination of Wages.
(D) Promoting Equal Wages For Equal Work.
98. After the report of the Royal Commission
on Labour, which of the following
legislations was first enacted ?
(A) Minimum Wages Act (B) Equal Remuneration Act
(C) Payment of Wages Act (D) Payment of Gratuity Act
99. Most of the social security benefits to
workers in India are calculated on the basis of
(A) Basic wage
(B) Basic wage and Dearness Allowance
(C) Basic wage, D.A. and Medical allowance
(D) Basic wage, D.A., Medical and House rent allowance
100. Which of the following is true of Indian
Labour Market ?
(A) It is a Perfect Market (B) Monopolistic Market
(C) Imperfect Market (D) None of the above
101. Arrange the phases of Hawthorne
Experiments in their proper
sequence :
(a) Relay Assembly Test Room
Experiment
(b) Bank Wiring Observation Test
Room
(c) Mass Interviewing Programme
(d) Illumination Experiment
(e) Counselling
(A) (b), (c), (d), (a), (e)
(B) (c), (d), (b), (e), (a)
(C) (d), (a), (c), (b), (e)
(D) (d), (c), (b), (a), (e)
102. The principle of ‘Unity of Command’ is
violated in
(A) Functional Organization
(B) Informal Organization
(C) Matrix Organization
(D) All the above
103. Coordination and cooperation are
(A) two different things
(B) one and the same
(C) dependent on each other
(D) more or less convey the same meaning
104. Premature evaluation of message takes
place due to
(A) Semantic Barriers
(B) Psychological Barriers
(C) Organizational Barriers
(D) None of the above
105. Which of the following is/are new
challenge/s in the field of human resource management ?
(A) Rightsizing
(B) Outsourcing
(C) Diversity Management
(D) All the above
106. Which of the following source is the
most relevant for recruitment of managerial personnel ?
(A) Employment Exchange
(B) Advertisement
(C) Gate Hiring
(D) Trade Unions
107. What is broad-banding ?
(A) Clubbing manpower structure
(B) Integrating information system
(C) Flexible pay-banding allowing grade mobility based on
performance
(D) None of the above
108. Organize the following steps in job
evaluation in the sequence of their occurrence :
(a) Preparing key or
benchmarking job
(b) Selecting comparable and
compensable factors
(c) Job analysis data
(d) Administration of Position
Analysis Questionnaire
(A) (c), (a), (b), (d)
(B) (a), (c), (d), (b)
(C) (a), (c), (b), (d)
(D) (b), (c), (a), (d)
109. Who is associated with ‘The Human
Capital Approach’ of HRD ?
(A) Dalton E. McFarland
(B) T.W. Schultz
(C) T.V. Rao
(D) Rensis Likert
110. When the career progression stagnates at
a point, it is called
(A) Career Resilience
(B) Career Anchor
(C) Career Insight
(D) Career Plateau
111. ‘Cousin Lab’, ‘Stranger lab’ and ‘Family
lab’ are terms associated with which OD technique ?
(A) Survey Feedback
(B) Managerial Grid
(C) Sensitivity Training
(D) Process Consultation
112. Training Evaluation at Reaction,
Learning, Job behaviour and results levels is the model advanced by
(A) Donald Kirkpatrick
(B) Goldstein
(C) Brinkerhoff
(D) Phillips
113. Which of the following statements is not
true about Performance Appraisal ?
(A) Key performance areas are developed for role clarity.
(B) Key result areas are developed for accountability.
(C) KSA stand for knowledge, skill and attitude.
(D) Attributes and traits are of no importance in
Performance Appraisal.
114. Match the following :
Leadership Theory Leadership Factors
(a) Contingency Theory (i) Personal vision and energy
(b) Trait Theory (ii) Personal drive, desire to
lead, personal integrity
(c) Charismatic Theory (iii) Leader’s position power,
task structure and leader
member
relations
(a) (b) (c)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii)
115. In which of the following transactions,
stimulus and response are parallel?
(A) Cross Transactions
(B) Complementary Transactions
(C) Ulterior Transactions
(D) All the above
116. In Vroom’s theory, motivation is
expressed as
(A) Valence + Expectancy
(B) Valence – Expectancy
(C) Valence × Expectancy
(D) Valence ÷ Expectancy
117. Which of the following is not among the
actions for change ?
(A) Changing
(B) Forcing
(C) Unfreezing
(D) Refreezing
118. “Formulation of rules and their
implementation are the bread and butter of industrial relations” is commented
by
(A) John T. Dunlop
(B) Alvin W. Gouldner
(C) Allan Flanders
(D) Kochan
119. The term ‘Conjunction’ is a state of
relationship under which the parties, instead of offering their best, offer the
least in the absence of which the relationship will break, is developed by
(A) Ian Clegg
(B) Neil W. Chamberlain
(C) E. Durkheim
(D) P.A. Kochan
120. In Industrial Disputes Act, 1947; which
one of the following is not an adjudication Machinery ?
(A) Labour Court
(B) Industrial Tribunal
(C) National Tribunal
(D) Court of Enquiry
121. Which one of the following does not come
under the schemes of workers’ participation in management, 1975 & 1977 ?
(A) Joint Management Council
(B) Shop Councils
(C) Joint Councils
(D) Unit Councils
122. The primary function of I.L.O. is to
formulate the international labour standards in the shape of
(A) Conventions only
(B) Recommendations only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
123. There is only one source of authority –
management. They own and, therefore, they control – is the argument of
(A) Pluralists
(B) Radicalists
(C) Trusteeship
(D) Unitarists
124. The Bombay Mill Hands Association under
the Presidentship of N.M. Lokhande which is often referred to as the starting
point of the Indian Labour Movement, was established in
(A) 1878
(B) 1879
(C) 1890
(D) 1891
125. Which of the following is not regarded
as Trade Union Weapon ?
(A) Strike
(B) Check-off
(C) Picketing
(D) Boycott
126. Which of the following is not long term
objective of Trade Union ?
(A) Establishment of Socialist Society
(B) Nationalisation of Industries
(C) Parliament of Proletariate
(D) Higher Wages and Short hours of work
127. The first union led by Maniben Kara and
Kamala Sinha (two women) in India was
(A) HMS
(B) INTUC
(C) AITUC
(D) BMS
128. According to the Factories’ Act, 1948,
which of the following is correct ?
(A) 8 hours a day and 48 hours a week
(B) 9 hours a day and 54 hours a week
(C) 9 hours a day and 48 hours a week
(D) 8 hours a day and 56 hours a week
129. Which of the following benefits is not
found under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 ?
(A) Sickness Benefit
(B) Maternity Benefit
(C) Children’s Allowance
(D) Dependent’s Benefit
130. Which of the following is based on
contributory principle ?
(A) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
(B) E.S.I. Act, 1948
(C) Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
(D) Old Age Pension Scheme
131. Indian Constitution was amended to
incorporate which of the following Provision?
(A) Payment of Bonus
(B) Workers’ Participation in Management
(C) Provision of Gratuity
(D) None of the above
132. Which of the following legislations
makes Provision of 240 days of service equivalent to one year continuous
service ?
(A) The Payment of Wages Act
(B) The E.S.I. Act
(C) The Industrial Disputes Act
(D) The Minimum Wages Act
133. The scope and coverage of which of the
following legislations was recently extended to cover workers drawing wages
upto 15,000 per month ?
(A) Maternity Benefit Act
(B) Industrial Disputes Act
(C) E.S.I. Act
(D) Shops and Establishments Act
134. Employment Exchanges (Compulsory
Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959 and Apprenticeship Act, 1961 represent
which of the following types of labour legislations ?
(A) Protective Legislation
(B) Regulative Legislation
(C) Social Security Legislation
(D) None of the above
135. An employer has submitted Draft Standing
Orders to the certifying officer for certification. Which of the following will
apply till the final certified standing orders become enforceable ?
(A) Nothing will apply
(B) Model Standing Orders
(C) Certified Standing Order of similar organization in
that locality
(D) It will be decided by the employer.
136. There shall be delegation of authority
in the welfare fields, either by election to committees, or by proper
nomination, according to
(A) Principle of Timeliness
(B) Principle of Accountability
(C) Principle of Evaluation and Assessment
(D) Principle of Responsibility
137. The need for imparting necessary education to
workers in India had been emphasised first by
(A) The Royal Commission on Labour
(B) The Indian Industrial Commission
(C) The Labour Investigation Committee
(D) None of the above
138. As per the Factories’ Act, 1948, a
crèche will be provided in Factories where more than
(A) 30 unmarried women are employed
(B) 30 married women are employed
(C) 30 women are employed
(D) None of the above
139. Which of the following is an agency for
providing labour welfare facilities in Factories ?
(A) Management
(B) Trade Union
(C) Government
(D) NGO
140. Which of the following is not included
under intra-mural labour welfare facilities?
(A) Canteen
(B) Crèche
(C) Hospitals
(D) Shelter, Rest rooms
141. Which of the following is not a
characteristic of labour market ?
(A) Same wage rate
(B) More sellers than buyers
(C) Heterogeneity in labour services
(D) Limited mobility of labour
142. Which of the following factors affect
supply of labour ?
(A) Population and Labour Force Participation Rate
(B) Skill, Experience and Job Qualification
(C) Mobility of Labour and Organization of Buyers and
Sellers
(D) All the above
143. Which of the following cannot be said to
be a type of wage differential ?
(A) Occupational Wage Differential
(B) Geographical Wage Differential
(C) Inter-industry Wage Differential
(D) National Wage Differential
144. Fixing lower retirement age for workers
will result in
(A) increased supply of labour
(B) reduced supply of labour
(C) will have no effect on supply of labour
(D) None of the above
145. Which of the following industries lead
to seasonal unemployment ?
(A) Sugar industry
(B) Construction industry
(C) Ice-cream industry
(D) All the above
Read the following passage and answer
questions from 46 to 50 :
For years the managerial
philosophers had called management’s attention to its total responsibility. The
indication of a moral oughtness was there, they stressed. As stewards for
stockholders, managers had a prime responsibility to the employees, the
customers, and the community – along with their well-recognised responsibility
to the owners. By and large, these early pronouncements apparently fell on deaf
ears. By the mid-thirties, however, heartening signs began to appear. In 1937,
for example, Raymond Moley declared that while management remained legally and
ethically a primary agent of the investor, its secondary responsibility to the public
and labour had become relatively greater. Four years later, Roger D. Lapham asserted
that in the narrow sense of the past, management had been considered solely
responsible to its ownership – its stockholders – but there was a growing
conviction that in the broader sense management’s duty to its customers, to the
public, and to its employees came first. By 1951 this view was well
established, and Frank Abraham’s writing in the Harvard Business Review
enunciated the new philosophy when he indicated that the job of management was
to conduct the affairs of the enterprise in such a way as to maintain an
equitable balance among the claims of the variously interested groups. In the
mid-sixties and early seventies we have again recognised changes in philosophy
that reflect management’s gradual assumption of its moral and social obligation
of good corporate citizenship. We see it, for example, in management’s assuming
its social responsibility by cooperating with the federal government in
withholding goods from countries if those goods would jeopardise our national
security; in maintaining prices at a level consistent with a healthy economy,
not raising them to a point considered critically inflationary; in training the
unemployed; in cleaning up city ghettos; and in recognising and acting upon
pollution problems. More examples could be cited, but the point of the
broadened view taken by management of its total responsibility has been made.
146. Raymond Moley advocated management’s
responsibility to
(A) owners of organisation only
(B) owners and employees only
(C) owners, public and labour
(D) owners, public, labour and customers
147. In view of Lapham management must take
care of
(A) investors only
(B) stockholders and employees only
(C) stockholders, public and customers only
(D) stockholders, customers, public and employees
148. Abraham is of the opinion that –
(A) it is difficult to satisfy variously interested
groups
(B) job management is to conduct affairs of enterprise
(C) there should be a balance among the interested groups
(D) None of the above
149. Which of the following is not a part of
corporate social responsibility ?
(A) Controlling prices to prevent inflation
(B) Training of employees
(C) Acting upon pollution related problems
(D) Jeopardising the security of nation
150. Corporate social responsibility comprises
of the following :
(A) Moral obligations of an organisation
(B) Social obligations of an organisation
(C) Moral and social obligations of an organisation
(D) None of the above
151. Arrange the following steps of planning
in a proper sequence
(i) Developing premises
(ii) Evaluating alternative courses
(iii) Being aware of opportunities
(iv) Selecting a course
(v) Establishing objectives
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) (v)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (v) (iv)
(C) (iii) (v) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (v) (i) (iv) (ii)
152. Which one of the following identifies
the basic function or task of an organisation ?
(A) Policy (B) Objective
(C) Mission (D) Programme
153. Match the following :
Name of Thinker
Major Contribution
(a) F.W. Taylor (i) Application of psychology to industry
and management
(b) Max Weber (ii) Systems approach to management
(c) Chester Barnard (iii) Emphasis on rules and
regulations
(d) Hugo Munsterberg (iv) Increased productivity through
efficiency in production
(a) (b) (c)
(d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
154. In ______, a person is perceived on the
basis of a single trait.
(A) Halo Effect
(B) Hawthorne Effect
(C) Stereotyping
(D) None of the above
155. Which of the following aims at control
through setting goals and productivity measures based on best industry
practices ?
(A) Pareto diagram
(B) Quality circles
(C) Kaizens
(D) Benchmarking
156. Which of the following is not true in
case of manpower planning ?
(A) It is a process by which an organisation should move
from its current manpower position to its desired manpower position.
(B) It is an integrated approach to performing the
personnel function required to meet organisational and individual objectives.
(C) It involves forecasting human resource requirements.
(D) It is a process to discover the sources of manpower.
157. Match the following :
List – I List
– II
(a) Collective Bargaining (i) Institutions set up by the
Government
and revision of wages.
(b) Wage Boards (ii) It is a procedure in
which compromise is reached
through balancing of opposed strengths.
(c) Wage (iii)
Remuneration paid to the clerical and managerial
personnel
on monthly or annual basis.
(d) Salary (iv) Remuneration paid by the employer for the
services of hourly,
daily,weekly and fortnightly
employees.
(a) (b) (c)
(d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
158. Grievance is
(A) A feeling of dissatisfaction.
(B) A dispute raised by a trade union.
(C) Refusal of the management of a demand.
(D) An act of indiscipline.
159. Which of the following is called a
negative process ?
(A) Recruitment
(B) Selection
(C) Induction
(D) Performance Appraisal
160. Which of the following is not a function
of human resource management ?
(A) Planning
(B) Organising
(C) Directing
(D) Accounting
161. When situation is duplicated in such a
way that it carries a closer resemblance to the actual job setting, it is
called
(A) Sensitivity Training
(B) Simulation
(C) Managerial Grid
(D) In Basket Method
162. Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale is
associated with
(A) Training and Development
(B) Performance Appraisal
(C) Career Planning
(D) Workers’ Participation in Management
163. Moonlighting means
(A) Working simultaneously in two organisations.
(B) Working under moonlight.
(C) Working in the night.
(D) Encouraging employee to improve productivity.
164. Which of the following is not a content
theory of motivation ?
(A) Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory
(B) Alderfer’s ERG Theory
(C) Vroom’s Expectancy Theory
(D) Herzberg’s Two Factor Theory
165. Theory X represents
(A) Democratic style of leadership
(B) Autocratic style of leadership
(C) Laissez-faire style of leadership
(D) Humanistic style of leadership
166. Which of the following is not a correct
statement ?
(A) Informal groups always hamper the performance of
formal groups.
(B) Informal groups do not have prescribed goals and
relationships.
(C) Informal and formal groups co-exist in organisations.
(D) Informal groups provide safety valve for employee
emotions.
167. The change procedure of unfreezing,
moving and refreezing was given by
(A) Kurt Lewin
(B) P.F. Drucker
(C) French and Bell
(D) Katz and Kahn
168. ________ means willingness to exert high
levels of effort on behalf of the organisation.
(A) Organisational commitment
(B) Organisation Effectiveness
(C) Organisational Control
(D) None of the above
169. Which of the following is not a
tripartite body ?
(A) Indian Labour Conference
(B) Standing Labour Committee
(C) Wage Boards
(D) Joint Management Councils
170. As per Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
works committee is constituted if there are
(A) 100 workers
(B) 50 workers
(C) 80 workers
(D) None of the above
171. The Chairman of the Second National
Commission on Labour was
(A) Gajendra Gadkar
(B) Ravindra Verma
(C) George Fernandes
(D) Vallabh Bhai Patel
172. Which of the following cannot be said to
be a body in the field of industrial relations ?
(A) Joint Management Council
(B) Works Committee
(C) Shop Level Council
(D) Canteen Committee
173. Which of the following can be said to be
the first Trade Union in India ?
(A) Amalgamated Society of Railway Servants of India and
Burma
(B) Kamgar Hitvardhak Sabha
(C) Madras Labour Union
(D) Bombay Millhand’s Association
174. Which of the following cannot be said to
be the short-term objective of trade unions ?
(A) Higher wages
(B) Shorter Hours of work
(C) Establishment of Socialist society
(D) Better conditions of Employment
175. Arrange the following in the order of
their coverage from lower to higher :
(a) Regional Union
(b) Craft Union
(c) Industrial Union
(d) Confederation
(e) Federation
(A) a, b, c, d, e
(B) b, c, a, e, d
(C) c, b, a, d, c
(D) d, a, b, c, e
176. Match the following :
Trade Union Year of establishment
(a) INTUC (i) 1970
(b) AITUC (ii) 1955
(c) BMS (iii) 1947
(d) CITU (iv) 1920
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
177. Which of the following cannot be said to
be a labour legislation ?
(A) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
(B) Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
(C) Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
(D) Trade Unions Act, 1926
178. The establishment of Indian Labour
Conference and Standing Labour Committee in India was on the pattern of
(A) ILO
(B) Report of Royal Commission on Labour
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
179. Which of the following is not a benefit
under the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 ?
(A) Sickness and Maternity Benefit
(B) Disablement and Dependents’ Benefit
(C) Medical Benefit and Funeral Assistance
(D) Child Allowance and Unemployment Benefit
180. The terms ‘arising out of employment’
and ‘during and in the course of employment’ have been
(A) Maternity
Benefit Act, 1961
(B) Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
(C) Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 (Employees’
Compensation Act, 1923)
(D) Employees Provident Fund (and Miscellaneous
Provisions) Act, 1952
181. Assertion (A) : At least seven persons
can apply to the Registrar for registration of their trade union.
Reason (R) : The Trade Unions Act, 1926 makes
registration of trade unions compulsory so that the trade union is recognized
as a bargaining agent.
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
182. Which of the following cannot be said to
be a public utility service under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?
(A) Railways/Airlines
(B) Post, telegraph and telephone service
(C) Automobile Industry/Jute and Cotton industries
(D) Undertakings related to power, electricity and water
supply
183. Which of the following is not an
authorised deduction under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 ?
(A) Fines
(B) Income-tax
(C) Contributions for LIC premiums
(D) Deductions made for payment of debt to money lender
184. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 which
of the following has/have been provided for fixation of minimum wages ?
(A) Wage Boards
(B) Awards of Labour Court
(C) Notification method and Committee method
(D) None of the above
185. Which of the following stands for bonus
in the context of Indian situation?
(A) Profit sharing
(B) Deferred wage
(C) Incentive
(D) None of the above
186. According to the Factories’ Act, 1948
crèche must be provided in a factory if there are
(A) 10 or more women workers
(B) 20 or more women workers
(C) 25 or more women workers
(D) 30 or more women workers
187. Which of the following is not a labour
welfare agency ?
(A) Bharat Sewak Samaj
(B) Harijan Sewak Sangh
(C) Central Social Welfare Board
(D) Standing Labour Committee
188. Which of the following are not the
theories of Labour Welfare ?
(A) Policing Theory and Placating Theory
(B) Religious Theory and Trusteeship Theory
(C) Functional Theory and Public Relations Theory
(D) Subsistence Theory and Residual Claimant Theory
189. Which of the following is not an intra-mural labour
welfare measure ?
(A) Canteen
(B) Creche
(C) Rest room, shelter and lunch room
(D) Housing and hospital facility
190. Which of the following does not affect the supply of
labour ?
(A) Population
(B) Strike
(C) Labour force participation
(D) Mobility of labour
191. Which of the following can be said to be
a correct concept of wages ?
(A) Wage is a reward.
(B) Wage is a compensation.
(C) Wage is the price of labour.
(D) Wage is an incentive to work more.
192. Tripartite Wage Boards in India followed
which of the following principles while making their recommendations ?
(A) Minimum Wage Principle
(B) Fair Wage Principle
(C) Living Wage Principle
(D) None of the above
193. Karl Marx is said to be the proponent of
which of the following
theories of wages ?
(A) Subsistence Theory of Wage
(B) Wage Fund Theory
(C) Surplus Value Theory of Wage
(D) Marginal Value Theory of Wage
194. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 was enacted
to check –
(A) Occupational wage differentials.
(B) Geographical wage differentials.
(C) Wage differential based on sex.
(D) Inter-industry wage differentials.
195. The scheme of workers’ participation in
management in industry in India was introduced through
(A) Code of Discipline in industry
(B) 20-point Economic Programme
(C) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act
(D) None of the above
Read the following passage and answer
questions from 46 – 50 :
Flexible leadership theory describes how leaders can enhance
employee commitment and skills in ways that will eventually improve efficiency,
adaptation, and financial performance. Many studies during the past half
century have identified types of leadership behaviour that can enhance employee
confidence, cooperation and effort. How leaders can improve skills has received
less attention in the leadership literature, but examples of relevant
behaviours include : providing clear explanations about job responsibilities
and work procedures to new or inexperienced employees, providing coaching and
feedback to an individual or team, encouraging employees to attend relevant
training programs, making developmental assignments to learn new skills, and
providing opportunities to use newly learned skills. Leaders can also improve
the quality of human resources by their influence on HRM programs and
management systems. This type of leader is sometimes called indirect
leadership, because no direct interaction with followers is necessary to
influence their attitudes and behaviour. Top executives in an organisation
usually have the authority to design or modify human resource management
programs. It is their responsibilities to ensure that the HRM programs are cost
effective, compatible with each other, and consistent with the firm’s
competitive strategy. Middle and lower-level managers can help to implement and
support the HRM programs, and they can help to evaluate the programs and
suggest improvements.
196. Flexible leadership theory aims at
(A) increasing commitment and skills
(B) decreasing financial performance and adaptation
(C) increasing flexibility while dealing with people
(D) None of the above
197. Leadership studies have mainly focused
on
(A) How leaders can improve skills of employees
(B) Kinds of leadership behaviour
(C) Flexible leadership behaviour
(D) All the above
198. Leaders can improve skills of employees
by
(A) communicating job expectations
(B) giving proper training
(C) giving opportunities to practice newly acquired
skills
(D) All the above
199. Indirect leadership means
(A) No interference in the work of subordinates
(B) No interaction with subordinates
(C) Influencing organisational functions
(D) Improving human resource quality through HRM
programmes and systems
200. Under indirect leadership, who designs
human resource management programs?
(A) Employees
(B) Lower level management
(C) Middle level management
(D) Top level management
201. Match the following :
Thinker Management Principle
a. F.W. Taylor i. Authority and Responsibility
b. Henri Fayol ii. Hierarchy
c. Weber iii. Separation of planning
from doing
d. Elton Mayo iv. Human Relations Approach
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iii i iv ii
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iii ii i iv
202. Which of the following is the major
element of planning process ?
(A) Developing
leadership abilities
(B) Selecting
right people
(C) Perception of
opportunities
(D) Motivating
people
203. Which principle of management is
violated by matrix organisation structure ?
(A) Division of
Labour
(B) Unity of
Direction
(C) Unity of
Command
(D) None of the
above
204. Which of the following involves careful
analysis of inputs and corrective actions before operation is completed ?
(A) Feed forward
control
(B) Concurrent
control
(C) Feedback
control
(D) All the above
205. Which of the following is not a semantic
barrier of communication ?
(A) Faulty
translation
(B) Ambiguous
words
(C) Specialist’s
language
(D) Inattention
206. People should be regarded as assets
rather than variable costs was emphasised in
(A) Personnel
Management
(B) Human Resource
Management
(C) Personnel
Administration
(D) Public
Administration
207. The classical theorists favoured
organisation based on
(A) Civilian model
(B) Strategic
model
(C) Military model
(D) None of the
above
208. Job analysis includes :
(A) Job
description and job enlargement
(B) Job
enlargement and job enrichment
(C) Job description
and job specification
(D) All of the
above
209. A test which measures, what it is
intended to measure is
(A) Reliable test
(B) Standardised
test
(C) Objective test
(D) Valid test
210. An enquiry that is conducted afresh because of the objections
raised by alleged employee is called
(A) Domestic
enquiry
(B) De-novo
enquiry
(C) Ex-parte
enquiry
(D) None of the
above
211. The concept of HRD scorecard was
introduced in India by
(A) Udai
Pareek
(B) Rao and Pareek
(C) T.V. Rao
(D) Arun
Honappa
212. Performance appraisal by all the
following parties is called 360performance appraisal :
(A) Supervisors
and Peers
(B) Subordinates
and Employees themselves
(C) Users of
Service and Consultants
(D) All the above
213. The following is the right process of
training :
(A)
Instructional design, validation, need
analysis, implementation and evaluation
(B) Need analysis,
instructional design, validation, implementation and evaluation
(C) Need analysis,
validation, instructional design, implementation and evaluation
(D) Instructional
design, need analysis, implementation, validation and evaluation
214. Fish bone analysis as a tool of quality
circle was advanced by
(A) Edward Deming
(B) Joseph Juran
(C) Kouru Ishi
Kawa
(D) Phillip Crosby
215. Match the following :
Books and Concepts Authors
a. Games People Play i. Eric Bernie
b. I am OK you are OK ii. Kurt Lewin
c. Johari Window iii. Thomas A.Harris
d. Force FieldAnalysis iv. Joseph Lufth &Harry
Inghams
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) i iii iv ii
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) iii i ii iv
216. Which of the following decreases group
cohesiveness ?
(A) Agreement on
group goals
(B) Frequency of
interaction
(C) Large group
size
(D) All the above
217. Managers subscribing to ______
assumptions attempt to structure, control and closely supervise their
employees.
(A) Theory ‘X’
(B) Theory ‘Y’
(C) Both Theory
‘X’ and Theory ‘Y’
(D) Neither Theory
‘X’ nor Theory
‘218. According to Fiedler’s Contingency Model of
Leadership, which one of the following is a situational variable ?
(A)
Leader – Member relationship
(B) Organisational
System
(C) Degree of task
structure
(D) Leader’s
position power
219. The right sequence of steps in Kurt
Lewin’s change procedure is
(A) Unfreezing –
Moving – Freezing
(B) Moving –
Unfreezing – Freezing
(C) Unfreezing –
Freezing – Moving
(D) Freezing –
Moving – Unfreezing
220. Which of the following is not a
traditional method of organisational development ?
(A) Survey
feedback
(B) Sensitivity
training
(C) Process
consultation
(D) Managerial
grid
221. Characteristics of Industrial Relations do not include :
(A) Industrial
Relations are outcome of employment relationship in an industrial enterprise.
(B) Industrial
Relations promote the skills and methods of adjustment and co-operation with
each other.
(C) Industrial
Relations create complex rules and regulations to maintain cordial relations.
(D) Industrial
Relations system creates an environment of distrust and conflict.
222. Who are not the Actors of Industrial
Relations ?
(A) Workers and
their organisations
(B) Employers and
their organisations
(C) Community and
cultural associations
(D) Government and
the role of the State
223. Which of the following is a machinery
for settlement of industrial disputes?
(A) Indian Labour
Conference
(B) Joint
Management Council
(C) Industrial
Tribunal
(D) Standing
Labour Committees
224. Match List – I with List – II :
List
– I List – II
a. Joint Management
Council consisting of
representatives of
workers and
management was
considered by the
Indian Labour
Conference (ILC) in its
15thSession in the year i. 1958
b. Works Committees
were set-up under the
Industrial Disputes Act
in the year ii. 1947
c. ILO established in the
year iii.
1919
d. First National
Commission on Labour
submitted its report in
the year iv. 1969
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv i iii ii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) ii iv i
ii
225. Which of the following trends in the
employment relations in the new economic era is not correct ?
(A) Declining
stability and security
(B) Declining
labour intensity
(C) No shift from
contract of service to contract of service
(D) Declining
mutual commitment
226. A Trade Union means “An
association of workers in one or more professions carried on mainly for the
purpose of protecting and advancing the members’economic interest in connection
with their daily work”.
Identify the author :
(A) Sidney and
Beatrice Webb
(B) J. Cunnison
(C) G.D.H. Cole
(D) Clyde E.
Dankert
227. A union may claim recognition for an
industry in a local area, if it has membership of
(A) 10% of the
workers in that industry.
(B) 15% of the
workers in that area.
(C) 25% of the
workers of that industry in that area.
(D) 30% of the
workers in similar industry.
228. Who among the following advocated the
Trusteeship Theory of Trade Union ?
(A) N.M. Lokhande
(B) B.P. Wadia
(C) G.L. Nanda
(D) M.K. Gandhi
229. Inter and intra-union rivalry in Trade
Unions is reduced by
(A) The provisions
of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947
(B) By voluntary
tripartite code of inter-union rivalry – 1957
(C) By bipartite
mutual agreement at the industry level
(D) Above all
230. Match the following trade unions
according to the year of formation :
List – I List – II
a. AITUC i. 1947
b.
CITU ii. 1948
c.
INTUC iii. 1920
d. HMS iv.
1970
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) i ii iii
iv
231. ‘Employment Injury’ means personal
injury to an employee caused by
accident or occupational disease arising out
of and in the course of employment being
an insurable employment if the accident occurs or occupational disease is
contracted only within territorial limits of India and not outside India.
The
above statement is
(A) correct.
(B) incorrect.
(C) true only in
case of occupational injury.
(D) true only in
case of accident.
232. Under ESI Act, 1948 a member of the
Corporation, Standing Committee or
the Medical Council shall cease to be a
member of the body if he fails to attend
(A) two
consecutive meetings
(B) three meetings
intermittently
(C) three
consecutive meetings
(D) four
consecutive meetings
233. Under Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
(A) individual
manager subordinate to an employer cannot act as managing agent.
(B) managing agent
includes an individual manager subordinate to an employer.
(C) only employer
can act as managing agent.
(D) the
appropriate government shall appoint managing agent.
234. The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923,
the Maternity Benefit Act, 1965 and the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
(A) together can
be applicable.
(B) the Maternity
Benefit Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.
(C) the Workmen’s
Compensation Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a
time.
(D) if the
Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Maternity Benefit Act are applicable, the
Employees State Insurance Act is not applicable.
235. What is the content of the Schedule I of
the ESI Act, 1948 ?
(A) List of
injuries deemed to result in permanent total disablement.
(B) List of
injuries deemed to result in permanent partial disablement.
(C) List of
occupational diseases.
(D) None of the
above
236. A person is qualified to be chosen as a
member of the executive or any other office bearer of the registered trade
union if he attained the age of
(A) Fifteen years (B) Eighteen years
(C) Twenty one
years (D) Twenty five years
237. The registered trade union can collect
political fund from its members as a
(A) general fund
(B) cannot collect
political fund
(C) separate fund
from the interested members
(D) only from
political parties
238. ‘Award’ under Industrial Disputes Act,
1947 is
(a) not interim
determination of labour court
(b) not
arbitration award under Section 10A
(c) not final
determination of labour court
(d) not final
determination of arbitration award under section 10A
(A) All statements
are true.
(B) (a) and (d)
are true.
(C) (b) is true.
(D) All statements
are wrong.
239. The dispute of individual workman is deemed
to be industrial dispute if the dispute or difference is connected with or
arising out of the following where no otherworkman nor any union of workman is
a party to the dispute.
(A) Grievance of
an individual workman.
(B) Discharge of
an individual workman.
(C) Dismissal of
an individual workman.
(D) Discharge,
dismissal, retrenchment or otherwise termination of services of an individual
workman.
240. The ceiling on wage or salary for
calculation of Bonus under the Payment of Bonus Act 1965 is
(A) ` 2,500 (B)
` 3,500
(C) ` 4,500 (D)
` 6,500
241. “A desirable state of existence
comprehending physical, mental, moral and emotional health or well being” is
the theme of which concept of Labour Welfare ?
(A) Social Concept
(B) Total Concept
(C) Relative
Concept
(D) Positive
Concept
242. Assertion (A) : Labour Welfare is
relative to time and space.
Reason (R) : It shall be universal and perpetual.
(A) Assertion and Reason are right.
(B) Assertion is
wrong and Reason is right.
(C) Both Assertion
and Reason are wrong.
(D) Assertion is
right but its explanation given in Reason is wrong.
243. Minimum conditions of welfare is
explained by
(A) Dr. Aykroid’s
formula
(B) Subsistence
Theory
(C) Both (A) and
(B)
(D) None of the
above
244. Which of the following is not a
principle of Labour Welfare ?
(A) The Principle
of Uniformity
(B) The Principle
of Co-ordination and Integration
(C) The principle
of Association
(D) The Principle
of Timeliness
245. Match the following :
List – I
List – II
(Theme)
(Theory)
a. The labour
welfare philosophy is i. Trusteeship Theory
meant for guarding the interests of
labour against the exploitation
of employers.
b. The labour welfare philosophy ii. Placating Theory
exposes the cause of empathic
considerations by the employer of
employee well being
c. The employer has to set out a iii. Policing Theory
portion of the profits for the
benefit of the employees
d. Labour Welfare is provided for iv. Philanthropic Theory
pacifying the agitating working class
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iv iii i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iv ii iii i
246. “Labour is not a commodity” – is the
assertion made by
(A) the
Declaration of Philadelphia adopted by 26th session of ILO
(B) the Magna
Carta
(C) the
Constitution of India
(D) the International
Labour Conference
247. Match the following :
Concept
Propagators
a. Industrial Democracy i. Karl Marx
b. Industrial Citizenship ii. Robert Owen
c. Class Conflict iii. Peter F. Drucker
d. Welfare Movement iv. Sydney &
Beatrize Webbs
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iii i ii iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) ii iv i iii
248. Assertion (A) : Industrial Labour in
India has been migratory.
Reason (R) : Driving force in migration comes almost entirely from one
end of the channel, that is the village end.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(B) (A) is wrong
and (R) is right.
(C) (A) is right
and (R) also is right.
(D) (A) is right
and (R) is wrong.
249. Match the following :
Theory of wages Propagators
a. Wage Fund Theory
i. John Bates
Clark
b. Marginal Productivity Theory ii. John Davidson
c. Bargaining Theory
iii. John
Stuart Mill
d. Investment Theory
iv. Gilelman
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) iii i ii iv
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) i iii ii iv
250. The “Marginal Discounted Product of
Labour” as a modified version of Marginal Productivity Theory was advanced by
(A) Taussig (B) Kalecki
(C) Ricardo (D) Adam Smith
251. Which of the following principles of
management was not given by Fayol?
(A) Unity of
direction
(B) Subordination
of individual interest to common interest
(C) Stability of
tenure
(D)
Standardisation
252. Arrange different phases of Hawthorne experiments in their right equence
:
a. Relay assembly
test room experiments
b. Bank wiring
observation test
c. Illumination
experiment
d. Personal
counselling
e. Mass
interviewing programme
(A) a, b, c, d, e
(B) c, a, e, b, d
(C) c, b, e, a, d
(D) e, d, c, b, a
253. Delphi technique is used in
(A) Organising
(B) Operating
(C) Staffing
(D) Forecasting
254. Narrow span of control results into
(A) Tall
structure
(B) Flat structure
(C) Mechanistic
structure
(D) All the above
255. Which of the following is correct about
‘Grapevine’ ?
(A) It tends to
exist when members of formal group know one another well.
(B) It is the
result of social forces at work place.
(C) It is more
common in times of high organisational excitement.
(D) All the above.
256. The following concept is developed on
unitarism, individualism, high commitment and strategic alignment.
(A) Personnel
Management
(B) Human Resource
Management
(C) Industrial
Relations
(D) Personnel
Administration
257. Human Resource Planning include
(A) Scenario
planning
(B) Action
planning
(C) Demand and
Supply forecasts
(D) All the above
258. Which one is not a part of recruitment
process ?
(A) Determining
requirements
(B) Planning
recruitment campaign
(C) Attracting
candidates
(D) Selecting
candidates
259. Which one is not a non-quantitative job
evaluation method ?
(A) Ranking method
(B) Grading method
(C) Point rating
method
(D)
Job-classification method
260. Consider the following punishments in
disciplinary actions :
(i) Warning
(ii) Demotion
(iii) Censure
(iv) Dismissal
Which
of the above fall under minor punishment ?
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and
(iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and
(iv)
261. Which of the following factors are
included in the calculation of human development index ?
(A) Life
expectancy
(B) Adult literacy
(C) Decent
standard of living
(D) All the above
262. Who is not associated with development
of human development index ?
(A) Mahabub-ul-Haq
(B) Manmohan Singh
(C) Meghnad Desai
(D) Sudhir Anand
263. The sequence of human resource
development activities according to Leonard Nadler are
(A) Education,
training and development
(B) Development,
training and education
(C) Training,
education and development
(D) Training,
development and education
264. Who introduced the concept of quality
circles in India ?
(A) P. V. Rao
(B) Udai Pareek
(C) Dharani P.
Sinha
(D) S. R. Udpa
265. Which of the following is the correct
sequence of training evaluation ?
(A) Reaction,
learning, behaviour and results
(B) Learning,
reaction, behaviour and results
(C) Learning,
behaviour, reaction and results
(D) Reaction,
learning, results and behaviour
266. Which of the following is the outcome of
job satisfaction ?
(A) High employee
turnover
(B) High
productivity
(C) Absenteeism
(D) All the above
267. Under Alderfer’s ERG theory, the three
core needs are
(A) Emotional,
Relational, and Growth
(B) Emotional,
Rational and Growth
(C) Existence,
Reliability and Gain
(D) Existence,
Relatedness and Growth
268. The group to which a person would like
to belong is known as
(A) Primary Group
(B) Membership
Group
(C) Reference
Group
(D) None of the
above
269. The Managerial Grid was given by
(A) Rensis Likert
(B) Kurt Lewin
(C) Hersey
Blanchard
(D) Blake and
Mouton
270. Arrange the following stages of group
dynamics in right sequence :
a. Norming
b. Performing
c. Storming
d. Forming
(A) d, c, a, b
(B) a, b, c, d
(C) d, c, b, a
(D) c, d, b, a
271. Identify the correct definition of
industrial relations :
(A) Relations
between or among human beings
(B) Relations
between employer and employees as individuals
(C) Relations
between parties in an employment context
(D) Collective
relationship between management and trade unions
272. Who has propounded the system concept of
industrial relations ? Find out from the following :
(A) L. N. Allen
Flander
(B) L. N. Flax
(C) John T. Dunlop
(D) Neil N.
Chamberlein J-55-12 7 Paper-II
273. Which is the correct order of settlement
of industrial disputes ?
a. Industrial
Tribunal
b. National
Tribunal
c. Conciliation
d. Labour Court
(A) c, a, d, b
(B) c, d, a, b
(C) a, d, c, b
(D) c, b, d, a
274. Which of the following is not a
Tripartite body ?
(A) Works
Committee
(B) I. L. O
(C) Indian Labour
Conference
(D) Wage
Boards
275. The code of discipline was ratified by
the Indian Labour Conference to ensure discipline in industry. Identify the
year of ratification out of the following :
(A) 1957
(B) 1958
(C) 1942
(D) 1962
276. Which of the following is not a
characteristics of Trade Union ?
(A) Is an
association of employers or the employees or of the independent workers?
(B) Is relatively
a permanent combination but not temporary or casual.
(C) Is an
association of workers who are engaged in not securing economic benefits for
their members.
(D) Is influenced
by a member of ideologies.
277. Recognition of trade union is made by
the provision of
(A) Trade Unions
Act of 1926
(B) Industrial
Dispute Act 1947
(C) Code of
Discipline
(D) Factories Act
of 1948
278. Which is not a structure of Trade Union
of Industrial Organisation ?
(A) Craft union
(B) General union
(C) Industrial
union
(D) Consumers’
union
279. A Trade Union should be registered as
per the law must have
(A) 20% of the
workers
(B) 150 workmen
(C) Minimum 17
persons
(D) None of the
above
280. The founder of Ahmedabad Textile Labour
Association was
(A) V. V. Giri
(B) M. K. Gandhi
(C) B. P. Wadia
(D) N. M. Lokhande
281. If there is wilful removal or disregard
by the workman of any safety guard or other device which he knew to have been
provided for the purpose of securing safety of workman,
(A) Employer is
liable to pay compensation
(B) Employer is
not liable to pay compensation
(C) Appropriate
government is liable to pay compensation
(D) The Trade
Union is liable to pay compensation
282. In case of fatal accident if the
commissioner serves notice to the employer based on his source
(a) the employer
can neglect the notice.
(b) if the
employer thinks liable, he shall make the deposit within sixty days of the
service of notice.
(c) if the
employer thinks liable, he shall make the deposit within thirty days of the
service of notice.
(d) if the
employer is not liable, he shall in his statement indicate the grounds on which
he disclaims liability.
(A) All statements
are correct.
(B) All statements
are incorrect.
(C) Only (a) and
(d) are correct.
(D) Only (c) and
(d) are correct.
283. The maternity leave period with full
wage is
(A) six months
(B) twelve weeks
(C) four months
(D) sixteen weeks
284. Match the following :
(a) Royal Commission on Labour (i) 1937
(b) Bombay Textile Labour Enquiry committee (ii) 1946
(c) Second Labour Ministers’ Conference (iii) 1929
(d) Labour Investigation Committee (iv) 2002
(e) Second National Commission on Labour (v) 1941
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(A) (ii) (i) (iii)
(iv) (v)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i)
(v) (iv)
(C) (iii) (v) (iv)
(i) (ii)
(D) (iii) (i) (v)
(ii) (iv)
285. The goal of ILO is
(A) creation of
jobs for men and women
(B) not just
creation of jobs but the creation of jobs of acceptable quality
(C) not overcoming
under employment
(D) not to provide
freedom of choice in employment
286. The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 is
applicable to an employee who draws wage or salary of
(A) ` 3500 in case of apprentice
(B) ` 5000
in case of apprentice
and employee
(C) ` 7500
in case of employee only
(D) `
10,000 in case of employee only
287. Unfair Labour Practices are listed
in
(A) the Factories
Act, 1948.
(B) the Industrial
Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946.
(C) the Industrial
Disputes Act, 1947.
(D) the Trade
Unions Act, 1926.
288. The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 has
(A) one schedule
covering different types of industries.
(B) one schedule
covering different types of industries, shops and establishments.
(C) one schedule
covering shops and establishments.
(D) two schedules
covering industrial establishments and agriculture.
289. If deduction is made contrary to the
provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 the aggrieved employee can write
to the inspector appointed under the Act within the time period given below
from the date on which the deduction from wages was made or the date on which
the payment of wages is due
(A) two years
(B) one year
(C) twelve weeks
(D) six weeks
290. The maximum daily hours of work in a day
with normal wage allowed in factories is
(A) 11 hours
(B) 10 hours
(C) 9 hours
(D) 8 hours
291. Assertion (A) : Intra-mural and
extramural welfare are mutually complimentary. Reason (R) : The work-life balances need
to be ensured in order to get the best output from an employee.
(A) Assertion is
wrong but Reason is logical.
(B) Both Assertion
and Reason are wrong.
(C) Assertion and
Reason are right.
(D) The Assertion
is right but Reason is wrong.
292. Which of the following statements is not
true in explaining the concept and scope of labour welfare ?
(A) Labour welfare
has no roots in social work.
(B) Long Arm of
the job and social invasion of workplace’ concepts, explain the mutuality between
intramural and extramural labour welfare
(C) Labour welfare
is a social concept.
(D) Corporate
social responsibility is an extended concept of welfare.
293. Who is the champion of the ‘Welfare
movement’ propagated in mid 19thcentury ?
(A) Frederick
Winslow Taylor
(B) Andrew Ure
(C) Sheebhom
Rownlvee
(D) Robert
Owners
294. Sequence the following developments by
their period of occurrence from earliest to the latest :
(i) The Labour
Investigation Committee
(ii) The Whitley
Commission
(iii) The
Enactment of Factories Act
(iv) The 1st
National Commission on Labour
(A) (ii) (i) (iii)
(iv)
(B) (ii) (iii)
(iv) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv)
(iii)
(D) (iv) (ii)
(iii) (i)
295. Which of the following statements
relating to Welfare Officer is not true
(A) The provision
of Welfare Officer is given in both the Factories Act, 1948 and the Mines Act,
1952.
(B) Welfare
Officer’s duties and responsibilities are defined and prescribed in the
legislation.
(C) Welfare
Officer’s appointment is tagged to the provision of minimum workforce employed
in an organisation
(D) The Welfare
Officer’s role was designed as a ‘Third force’.
296. Which of the following statements about
characteristics of labour is not true ?
(A) Labour is a
perishable commodity.
(B) Labour cannot
be separated from the person.
(C) Workers have
no reserve price.
(D) Labour is as
flexible and mobile as capital.
297. Which of the following statements about
labour market is not true ?
(A) Labour market
like commodity market is analyzed by supply, demand and price equilibrium.
(B) Labour Market
is relatively more local than commodity market.
(C) Unlike a
commodity market, the relationship between a buyer and seller in a labour
market is not temporary.
(D) Monopoly in
the labour market is high.
298. Money Wage is otherwise called as
(A) Real wage
(B) Living wage
(C) Nominal wage
(D) Fair wage
299. Wage Boards set right
(A) Inter-regional
differentials
(B) Inter-sectoral
differentials
(C) Intra-industry
differentials
(D) Inter-industry
differentials
300. Which of the following is not a
determinant of wages ?
(A) Prevailing
wages
(B) Bargaining
strength of Unions
(C) Job Evaluation
(D) Performance
Appraisal
